Important Questions for NDA 2 2019 Exam

Important Questions for NDA 2 2019 Exam

NDA 2 2019 written examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 17 November 2019 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 144rd Course, and for the 106th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC).

All those Candidates who are keen to join National Defence Academy must pull up their socks and should focus totally on the written exam. We here at DefenceAdda are providing you Important Questions for NDA 2 2019 Exam that will help you clear the written part in your first attempt.



Q1. Crocodiles store fats in
(a) head
(b) stomach
(c) tail
(d) arteries
Q2. In which one of the following is a great dark plain called 'Maria' found?
(a) Earth
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Moon
Q3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
Winner of booker prize
List II
Novel
A. Arundhati Roy
1. In a free State
B. Kiran Desai
2. The God of Small Things
C. Salman Rushdie
3. The White Tiger
D. V.S. Naipul
4. The Inheritance of Loss

5. Midnight's Children
Code:
(a) A - 1; B - 5; C - 3; D - 2
(b) A - 1; B - 3; C - 4; D - 2
(c) A - 2; B - 5; C - 3; D - 1
(d) A - 2; B - 4; C - 5; D - 1
Q4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Exponent)
List II 
(Dance form)
A. Surendranath Jena
1. Kathakali
B. Pushpa Bhuyan
2. Kathak
C. Birju Maharaj
3. Bharat Natyam
D. Sankaran Embranthiri
4. Oddissi
Code:
(a) A - 1; B - 2; C - 3; D - 4
(b) A - 4; B - 3; C - 2; D - 1
(c) A - 1; B - 3; C - 2; D - 4
(d) A - 4; B - 2; C - 3; D - 1
Q5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Person)
List II 
(Industrial unit)
A. Indira Nooyi
1. Airtel
B. Mukesh Ambani
2. Wipro
C. Sunil Mittal
3. Pepsi
D. Azim Premji
4. Reliance
Code:
(a) A - 3; B - 1; C - 4; D - 2
(b) A - 2; B - 1; C - 4; D - 3
(c) A - 2; B - 4; C - 1; D - 3
(d) A - 3; B - 4; C - 1; D - 2
Q6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Institute)
List II 
(Location)
A. National Institute of Immunology
1. Pune
B. National Centre for Cell Science
2. Manesar
C. Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics
3. Hyderabad
D. National Brain Research Centre
4. New Delhi
Code:
(a) A - 2; B - 3; C - 1; D - 4
(b) A - 4; B - 1; C - 3; D - 2
(c) A - 4; B - 3; C - 1; D - 2
(d) A - 2; B - 1; C - 3; D - 4
Q7. Who among the following is the winner of the Wimbledon Men's Singles title 2008?
(a) Roger Ferderer
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Novak Djokovic
(d) Andy Roddick
Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. Lamba in Gujrat is famous for wind power plant.
2. Manikiran in Himachal Pradesh is famous for geothermal energy plant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q9. The metal compound commonly found in Sindoor or kumkum is based on
(a) tin
(b) lead
(c) copper
(d) zinc
Q10. Alum is used as
(a) an analgesic
(b) a fertiliser
(c) a disinfectant
(d) a water purifier
Q11. Which among the following elements (metals) pollutes the air of a city having a large number of automobiles?
(a) Cadmium
(b) Lead
(c) Chromium
(d) Nickel
Q12. Oxygen and ozone are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomers
(c) isotopes
(d) isobars
Q13. When applied to the affected area, which one of the following will relieve the pain due to ant-bite or bee-sting?
(a) Lemon juice
(b) Vinegar
(c) Baking soda
(d) Caustic soda
Q14. Which among the following is a chemical change?
(a) A wet towel dries in the sun
(b) Lemon juice added to tea causing its colour to change
(c) Hot air rises over radiator
(d) Coffee is brewed by passing steam through ground coffee
Q15. Which among the following is an element?
(a) Alumina
(b) Brass
(c) Graphite
(d) Silica
Q16. Consider the following equation for the formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen :
N2+ 3H2 = 2NH3
How many hydrogen molecules are required to react with 100 molecules of nitrogen?
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 400
Q17. Which one of the following is used as moderator in nuclear reactors?
(a) Ozone
(b) Heavy Hydrogen
(c) Heavy Water
(d) Hydrogen Peroxide
Q18. Which one of the following contains maximum percentge of nitrogen by mass?
(a) Urea
(b) Ammonium cyanide
(c) Ammonium carbonate
(d) Ammonium nitrate
Q19. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Substance)
List II 
(Raw Material)
A. Glass
1. Fat and caustic alkali
B. Soap
2. Cellulose fiber and gelatin
C. Paper
3. Silicates of calcium and aluminium
D. Cement
4. Silica
Code:
(a) A - 3; B - 2; C - 1; D - 4
(b) A - 4; B - 2; C - 1; D - 3
(c) A - 3; B - 1; C - 2; D - 4
(d) A - 4; B - 1; C - 2; D - 3
Q20. Two elements gallium and oxygen combine to form a compound Ga2O3. Which among the following is the valency of gallium?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q21. Vinegar is the trade name of
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Chloroform
(c) Carbon tetrachloride
(d) Ethyl alcohol
Q22. Consider the following statements regarding diamond
1. It is an allotrope of silicon
2. It is a bad conductor of heat and electricity
3. It is the hardest substance
4. It burns to produce carbon dioxide
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q23. Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair-setting?
(a) Sulphur based
(b) Phosphorus based
(c) Silicon based
(d) Iron based
Q24. Non-conductors, whose polarization is caused by an electric field, are known as
(a) Semi-conductors
(b) Super-conductors
(c) Dielectrics
(d) Resistive conductors
Q25. The resistance of a wire that must be placed parallel with a 12 Ω resistance to obtain a combined resistance of 4 Ω is
(a) 2Ω
(b) 4Ω
(c) 6Ω
(d) 8Ω
Q26. One light year is equal to
(a) 9.46 × 10¯¹⁵m
(b) 9.46 × 10¹⁵
(c) 9.46 × 10¯¹³
(d) 9.46 × 10¹³
Q27. Which among the following thermometers is preferred for measuring temperature around 1250°C?
(a) Mercury thermometer
(b) Constant volume gas thermometer
(c) Optical pyrometer
(d) Platinum resistance thermometer
Q28. What is the mass of one litre of cottonseed oil of density 926 kg/m³?
(a) 926 kg
(b) 92.6 kg
(c) 0.926 kg
(d) 9260 kg
Q29. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of
(a) 1 mm
(b) 1 cm
(c) 1 micron
(d) 1 angstrom
Q30. In vacuum, the speed of light
(a) depends on its wavelength
(b) depends on its frequency
(c) depends on its intensity
(d) neither depends on its wavelength, frequency nor intensity
Q31. Which one of the following statements correctly defines power?
(a) Energy supplied per unit time
(b) Energy of an object due to its motion
(c) Energy of an object due to its position
(d) None of the above
Q32. The electric charge is stored in a device called
(a) Inductor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Resistor
(d) Transformer
Q33. Consider the following parts of spectra
1. Visible
2. infrared
3. Ultraviolet
4. Microwave
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in which their wavelengths increase?
(a) 4-3-1-2
(b) 4-1-2-3
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) 3-1-2-4
Q34. Propagation of light quanta may be described by
(a) Photons
(b) Protons
(c) Neutrons
(d) Electrons
Q35. Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature?
(a) Cathode-rays
(b) X-rays
(c) Gamma-rays
(d) Infrared-rays


Q36. Which one of the following is the value of current I in the circuit shown below ?
C:\Users\CPS\Desktop\1s.jpg
(a) 5 A
(b) 10 A
(c) 15 A
(d) 20 A
Q37. The force experienced by a unit positive test charge placed at a point is called
(a) Magnetic field at that point
(b) Gravitational field at that point
(c) Electrical field at that point
(d) Nuclear field at that point
Q38. A long jumper runs before jumping because he
(a) covers a greater distance
(b) maintains momentum conservation
(c) gains energy by running
(d) gains momentum
Q39. Which among the following is the necessary condition for simple harmonic motion?
(a) Constant period
(b) Contant acceleration
(c) Displacement and acceleration are proportional
(d) Displacement and torque are proportional
Q40. Consider the following four particles :
1. Alpha particle
2. Proton
3. Electron
4. Neutron
Which of the following is the correct sequence in which their rest-masses increase?
(a) 3-4-2-1
(b) 4-2-3-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 2-3-1-4
Q41. If an α-particle is projected normally through a uniform magnetic field, then the path of the α-particle inside the field will be
(a) circular
(b) parabolic
(c) elliptic
(d) a straight line
Q42. How far must a girl stand in front of a concave spherical mirror of radius 120cm to see an erect image of her face four times its natural size?
(a) 40 cm from the mirror
(b) 45 cm from the mirror
(c) 50 cm from the mirror
(d) 55 cm from the mirror
Q43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Type of electromagnatic radiation)
List II 
( Approximate wavelength in metres)
A. Infrared radiation
1. 10¯¹² 
B. X-rays
2. 10¯⁵
C. Ultraviolet radiation
3. 10¯¹⁰
D. gamma rays
4. 10¯⁸
Code:
(a) A - 2; B - 3; C - 4; D - 1
(b) A - 1; B - 4; C - 3; D - 2
(c) A - 1; B - 3; C - 4; D - 2
(d) A - 2; B - 4; C - 3; D – 1
C:\Users\CPS\Desktop\1s.jpg


Q44. The standing wave pattern along a string of length 60 cm is shown in the above diagram. If the speed of the transverse wave on this string is 300 m/s, in which one of the folowing modes is the string vibrating?
(a) Fundamental
(b) First overtone
(c) Second overtone
(d) Third overtone
Q45. A sonometer wire having a length of 50 cm is vibrating in the fundamental mode with a frequency of 100 Hz. Which of the following is the type of propagating wave and its speed?
(a) longitudinal, 50 m/s
(b) Transverse, 50 m/s
(c) Longitudinal, 100 m/s
(d) Transverse, 100 m/s
Q46. Which one of the following is the amount of heat given up when 20g of steam at 100°C is condensed and cooled to 20°C?
(a) 10000 cal
(b) 11400 cal
(c) 12400 cal
(d) 13600 cal
Q47. Which one of the following is the mode of heat tansfer in which warm material is transported so as to displace a cooler material?
(a) Conduction only
(b) Convection Only
(c) Radiation
(d) Both conduction and convection
Q48. Consider the following statements :
1. Different plant species grow together.
2. Light cannot penetrate into the lower strata full of undergrowth.
Which of the following types of vegetation is characterized by the above?
(a) Equatorial moist evergreen
(b) Tropical deciduous
(c) Mediterranean
(d) Warm temperate broad leaved deciduous
Q49. From which one of the following is the percentage of reflected amount of radiation highest?
(a) wet ground
(b) thick cloud
(c) forest
(d) snow cover
Q50. On planet Earth there is no centrifugal force at the
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Tropic of Capricon
(d) Poles
Q51. Which one of the following set of states does not receive most of its rainfall from SW monsoon during the months of June to September?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
(b) Assam and Karnataka
(c) Himachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
(d) Tamilnadu and Jammu & Kashmir
Q52. In which one of the following states is the percentage of Scheduled Tribes population to its total population highest?
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Mizoram
(d) Rajasthan
Q53. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Peak)
List II 
(State)
A. Dodabetta
1. Maharashtra
B. Guru Shikhar
2. Madhya Pradesh
C. Kalsubai
3. Tamil Nadu
D. Dhupgarh
4. Rajasthan
Code:
(a) A - 3; B - 1; C - 4; D - 2
(b) A - 2; B - 1; C - 4; D - 3
(c) A - 3; B - 4; C - 1; D - 2
(d) A - 2; B - 4; C - 1; D - 3
Q54. The mass of water vapour per unit volume of air is known as
(a) Relative humidity
(b) Specific humidity
(c) Absolute humidity
(d) Variable humidity
Q55. What is the term used to denote the critical temperature at which the air becomes saturated with vapour and below which the condensation is likely to begin?
(a) Condensation point
(b) Evaporation point
(c) Dew point
(d) Point of critical temperature
Q56. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Fishing Bank)
List II 
(Coast)
A. Dogger Bank
1. Newfoundland
B. Grand Bank
2. Australia
C. Great Barrier Reef
3. North Sea
D. Tonga Trench
4. East of Fiji Island
Code:
(a) A - 3; B - 1; C - 2; D - 4
(b) A - 4; B - 2; C - 1; D - 3
(c) A - 3; B - 2; C - 1; D - 4
(d) A - 4; B - 1; C - 2; D - 3
Q57. Dry point settlements are common in
(a) Deserts
(b) Plateaus
(c) Mountain regions
(d) Deltas
Q58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Himalayan Peaks)
List II 
(States)
A. Nanga Parbat
1. Jammu & Kashmir
B. Nanda Devi
2. Sikkim
C. Kanchanjunga
3. Uttarakhand
Code:
(a) A - 1; B - 2; C - 3;
(b) A - 1; B - 3; C - 2;
(c) A - 2; B - 3; C - 1;
(d) A - 3; B - 1; C - 2;
Q59. Which one of the following instruments is used for measuring the humidity of the air?
(a) Wind vane
(b) Aneroid barometer
(c) Wet and dry bulb thermometer
(d) Maximun and minimum thermometer
Q60. Which among the following is the correct sequence of the rivers starting from North to South?
(a) Bhima-Godavari-Penganga-Tungabhadra
(b) Godavari-Penganga-Tungabhadra-Bhima
(c) Penganga-Godavari-Bhima-Tungabhadra
(d) Penganga-Bhima-Godavari-Tungabhadra
Q61. Which one of the following is the international aircraft identification mark (registration prefix) for India?
(a) AT
(b) VT
(c) IX
(d) VX
Q62. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Volcano)
List II 
(Country)
A. Mount Etna
1. India
B. Kilimanjaro
2. U.S.A
C. Katmai
3. Tanzania
D. Barren Island
4. Italy
Code:
(a) A - 1; B - 3; C - 2; D - 4
(b) A - 4; B - 2; C - 3; D - 1
(c) A - 1; B - 2; C - 3; D - 4
(d) A - 4; B - 3; C - 2; D - 1
Q63. Shimsha, Hemavati and Arkavati are the tributaries of which of the following rivers?
(a) Tapti
(b) Tungabhadra
(c) Kaveri
(d) Krishna
Q64. Which among the following planets is smaller in size than the Earth?
(a) Neptune
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus
Q65. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Prime Meridian - 0°
(b) International Date Line - 180°
(c) Arctic Circle - 66½°  N
(d) Tropic of Cancer - 23½° S
Q66. Which one of the following is the difference in local time between the places located at 165° East and 165° West?
(a) 0 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 22 hours
(d) 24 hours
Q67. The natural dye present in turmeric is known as
(a) Cinnamin
(b) Phenolphthalein
(c) Methyl Orange
(d) Curcumin
Q68. Which of the following is not an enzyme?
(a) Amylase
(b) Pepsin
(c) Somatotropin
(d) Trypsin
Q69. Which one of the following processes takes place in lakes during eutrophication?
(a) Rapid destruction of algal growth
(b) Excessive availability of dissolved oxygen
(c) Loss of dissolved nutrients from water
(d) Excessive entry of nutrients into water
Q70. Among the given nutrients milk is a poor source of
(a) Calcium
(b) Protein
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Vitamin C
Q71. Which of the following is not a mammal?
(a) Dolphin
(b) Shark
(c) Seal
(d) Whale
Q72. Which of the following organelles of a cell is/are involved in photosynthesis?
(a) Choloroplast
(b) Mitochondrion
(c) Endoplasmic recticulum
(d) Golgi bodies
Q73. The wounds of face bleed profusely because
(a) of its rich vascularity
(b) of its closeness to heart
(c) its skin is soft
(d) of fast contraction of facial muscle
Q74. Oral Rehydration Therapy is recommended for
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Typhoid
(c) Tetanus
(d) Cholera
Q75. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I 
(Disease)
List II 
(Diagnosis)
A. AIDS
1. Widal test
B. Plague
2. Wayson stain test
C. Typhoid
3. ELISA test

4. Mantoux test
Code:
(a) A - 4; B - 3; C - 2;
(b) A - 3; B - 2; C - 1;
(c) A - 1; B - 2; C - 3;
(d) A - 3; B - 2; C - 4;
Q76. Which of the following are the possible blood groups of the offspring of the parents with blood group O and AB?
(a) O, A, B and AB
(b) A and B
(c) A, B and AB
(d) O and AB
Q77. Who among the following was the author of Tarikh-i-Alai, which contains the details of the first few years of Sultan Alauddin Khilji?
(a) Ziauddin Barani
(b) Shams Siraj Afif
(c) Amir Khusrau
(d) Yahiya Bin Ahmed
Q78. Who among the following was a contemporary of Gautam Buddha?
(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Kanishka
(c) Kautilya
(d) Mahavir
Q79. Sati was declared illegal and punishable by the Regualtion XVII during Governor-Generalship of
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Q80. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I
(Battle)
List II
(Year)
A. 1st Battle of Panipat
1. 1565
B. Battle of Plassey
2. 1526
C. Battle of Haldighati
3. 1757
D. Battle of Talikota
4. 1576
Code:
(a) A - 2; B - 3; C - 4; D - 1
(b) A - 2; B - 4; C - 3; D - 1
(c) A - 1; B - 4; C - 3; D - 2
(d) A - 1; B - 3; C - 4; D - 2
Q81. Which one of the following slogans is attributed to Subhash Chandra Bose?
(a) Jai Jawan Jai Kisan
(b) Bande Mataram
(c) Jai Hind
(d) Inquilab Zindabad
Q82. Where did Buddha attain Parinirvana?
(a) Bodh Gaya
(b) Kushinagara
(c) Rajgriha
(d) Vaishali
Q83. Bande Mataram the nationalist song was a part of
(a) Durgesh Nandini
(b) Saraswati Chandra
(c) Griha Daha
(d) Anand Math
Q84. Who among the following has authored the book Hind Swaraj?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) M.G. Ranade
Q85. The entry 'Public Health and Sanitation' is included in the Constitution of India in
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) None of the above
Q86. The Instrument of Instructions contained in the Government of India Act 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Emergency Provisions
Q87. Who among the following was the advisor to Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. Shiva Rao
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Sachidananda Sinha
(d) B.N. Rau
Q88. On which of the following grounds can a Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court be impeached?
1. Violation of the Constitution
2. Proved misbehaviour
3. Incapacity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
Q89. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Finance Commission of India?
1. Making recommendations as to the principles governing grant-in-aid of the revenues of the States.
2. To suggest measures to augment Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q90. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments have added Article 15 (5) in the Constitution of India providing for reservation in educational institutions in the private sector also?
(a) 81st Amendment
(b) 86th Amendment
(c) 91st Amendment
(d) 93rd Amendment
Q91. If any question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill or not, whose decision shall be final?
(a) The Supreme Court of India
(b) The President of India
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
Q92. The current Economic Census of India, the fifth in the series, was conducted in the year
(a) 2005
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2008
Q93. Which among the following states/UT is the latest to introduce VAT (Value Added Tax) in India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Puducherry
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Q94. Who among the following was the Chairman of the High Level Committee on Competition Policy and Law?
(a) Bimal Jalan
(b) C. Rangarajan
(c) Y.V. Reddy
(d) S.V.S Raghavan
Q95. The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the Constitution of India has been borrowed from the
(a) Constitution of Canada
(b) Weimar Constitution of Germany
(c) Constitution of Ireland
(d) Constitution of the USA
Q96. In India, public expenditure on education (Centre and States) as a percentage of GDP at present is between
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(b) 3 to 4 per cent
(c) 4 to 5 per cent
(d) 5 to 6 per cent


 Answer Key
S1. Ans.(c)
S2. Ans.(d)
S3. Ans.(d)
S4. Ans.(b)
S5. Ans.(d)
S6. Ans.(b)
S7. Ans.(b)
S8. Ans.(c)
S9. Ans.(b)
S10. Ans.(d)
S11. Ans.(b)
S12. Ans.(a)
S13. Ans.(c)
S14. Ans.(b)
S15. Ans.(c)
S16. Ans.(c)
S17. Ans.(c)
S18. Ans.(a)
S19. Ans.(d)
S20. Ans.(c)
S21. Ans.(a)
S22. Ans.(b)
S23. Ans.(a)
S24. Ans.(c)
S25. Ans.(c)
S26. Ans.(b)
S27. Ans.(c)
S28. Ans.(c)
S29. Ans.(d)
S30. Ans.(d)
S31. Ans.(a)
S32. Ans.(b)
S33. Ans.(d)
S34. Ans.(a)
S35. Ans.(a)
S36. Ans.(c)
S37. Ans.(c)
S38. Ans.(d)
S39. Ans.(c)
S40. Ans.(c)
S41. Ans.(a)
S42. Ans.(b)
S43. Ans.(a)
S44. Ans.(c)
S45. Ans.(d)
S46. Ans.(c)
S47. Ans.(b)
S48. Ans.(b)
S49. Ans.(d)
S50. Ans.(d)
S51. Ans.(d)
S52. Ans.(c)
S53. Ans.(c)
S54. Ans.(c)
S55. Ans.(c)
S56. Ans.(a)
S57. Ans.(d)
S58. Ans.(b)
S59. Ans.(c)
S60. Ans.(c)
S61. Ans.(b)
S62. Ans.(d)
S63. Ans.(c)
S64. Ans.(b)
S65. Ans.(d)
S66. Ans.(c)
S67. Ans.(d)
S68. Ans.(c)
S69. Ans.(c)
S70. Ans.(d)
S71. Ans.(b)
S72. Ans.(a)
S73. Ans.(a)
S74. Ans.(d)
S75. Ans.(b)
S76. Ans.(b)
S77. Ans.(c)
S78. Ans.(d)
S79. Ans.(a)
S80. Ans.(a)
S81. Ans.(c)
S82. Ans.(b)
S83. Ans.(d)
S84. Ans.(b)
S85. Ans.(b)
S86. Ans.(b)
S87. Ans.(d)
S88. Ans.(d)
S89. Ans.(c)
S90. Ans.(d)
S91. Ans.(c)
S92. Ans.(a)
S93. Ans.(c)
S94. Ans.(d)
S95. Ans.(b)

S96. Ans.(b)

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